Discusion about Varicocele

Posted: March 9th, 2023

 The task is to answer the following question, in which the correct answer is option D. Then I have to argue why Varicocele is the correct answer. The question is :

A 23-year-old healthy man has been unable to father a child. He and his wife have a workup for infertility. His wife’s reproductive function is normal. On physical examination both his testes are palpable in the scrotum and the testes and scrotum are normal in size, with no masses palpable. However, the spermatic cord on the left has the feel of a ‘bag of worms’. Laboratory studies show oligospermia. Which of the following conditions is this man most likely to have? Explain your answer.

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A Hydrocele

B Testicular torsion

C Spermatocele

D Varicocele

E Seminoma

The homework must have 200 words and 2 references

SOLUTION

The correct answer is D. Varicocele.

Varicocele is the most common correctable cause of male infertility. It is a condition where the veins in the scrotum become enlarged, similar to varicose veins that can occur in the legs. The ‘bag of worms’ feeling on the spermatic cord is a characteristic finding in a varicocele. The exact cause of varicoceles is not fully understood, but it is thought to be due to the abnormal flow of blood in the testicular veins, leading to a build-up of pressure and enlargement of the veins. This can result in decreased blood flow and oxygenation to the testes, which can lead to a reduction in sperm production and quality, and oligospermia.

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